Let me ask this. Why doesn't having a flawless rental history for 7+ years qualify me for a home loan where the repayments are equal to the rent I am currently paying?
Apparently, I need to specify this; I mean in lieu of a $100K deposit.
I mean with the rent I alone am paying right now, in 30 years I will have paid over five hundred thousand dollars into another person's bank account. Why? Why is this fair? This property sold for $200K in 2007. Meaning I could pay it off in 15 years. Whyyyy. WHYYYY.
Why does the lender have to make a fuckton of money off this? Why is there not some actual 'care about the people' arm of the government that tenders a trade between a property owner and a property purchaser without an assload of profit off of it?