Is there any good reason yet to believe that CV reinfection (or vaccine-evading infection) with a new strain might be any different (lethality variation aside) from reinfection with the same strain after immunity fades? (I understand the latter to be expected to be ~always mild.)

(Lots of press discussion appears to assume reinfection wld be as if one had never had CV at all. But my understanding - derived entirely from others; I claim no personal expertise on this particular point - is that that is probably badly wrong. Have I understood correctly?)

Lots of press discussion appears to regard vaccine transmission immunity evasion as some potentially huge danger that risks putting us back to square 1. But if evading vaccine immunity still wldn't put the infected @ risk of serious illness it's much less clear it matters greatly