🧵One aspect of testing that I’m interested in (but absolutely no expert) is the correlation between +ve qPCR, and subsequent viral culture. The idea being that if you test +ve by PCR but can’t culture it, you are significantly less (or not) infectious. Sounds too easy.
Just one figure: Y axis is the Ct value (lower number implies more starting material i.e. more virus). Red dots are the samples that were able to be cultured … which makes sense that it correlates with the lower Ct value. All good.
But... how sure are we that those blue dots are not infectious based on culture? Would I let a blue dot (-ve culture), 7d after symptom onset with a Ct value 26-30, visit us? I’ve wondered to what extent you can really be sure of that, because it ‘sounds’ like a tricky assay.
I’ve been tagged in a couple of interesting discussions on the topic recently so wanted to share those. Turns out that there are MANY pitfalls with this assay, and that a person who tests positive by PCR that has no positive culture may indeed be infectious.
https://twitter.com/richdavisphd/status/1354890103072518146?s=20
https://twitter.com/SBtotheDub/status/1333486005513424896?s=20
https://twitter.com/MackayIM/status/1332558739577049090?s=20
It sounds like we would run into people testing +ve for PCR and then not being able to culture the virus due to technical problems. I have no doubt that these things will correlate, namely high viral load, low Ct, more infectious, but seems hard to reliably perform en masse.
Is it a pipe dream to do this on a national level under such intense time pressure? It seems like it may be too error prone a technique to be useful in a pandemic response.

Would like to hear more.... post it up.
You can follow @andrew_croxford.
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