Something I’m still unclear about: Is the UK in a better position than elsewhere because we reserved the right vaccines (i.e got ahead of others in queue) or because our actions boosted production, and whats relationship between the two?

European politicians suggest Britain has a “U.K. first” policy, and so they’re now retaliating accordingly. But is it the case we just signed a superior contract with AstraZenica giving us preferential treatment, or that UK actions have led to more vaccines being produced?

Simplest way of thinking about it: If the European Commission has acted earlier would vaccines just be distributed more evenly between UK and EU (hence we lose out compared to now) or would there be more overall vaccines?

I suppose I should add - I’m sure it’s a bit of both - but haven’t found much that properly disentangles the two.