Did classical economics have an indigenous theory of property as such? Ie, prescribing actual property rules in one way or another? Did it hew to Locke in any meaningful sense? Or was the task of theorizing property largely outsourced to lawyers?

... by a certain point there's more or less a bifurcation where economists are consequentialists about legal rights whereas most lawyers still aren't. This doesn't mean they're at odds; classicism as a set of particular legal entitlements seems to rely on a combination of the two

But I'm just wondering if there's an earlier point where economists are addressing these questions more directly and foundationally.