[ An argument Christians fail to answer]

Luke 22:41-42

The night Jesus was arrested, before his trial and crucifixion, he prayed alone in the Garden of Gethsemane, having asked three of his disciples to wait nearby, praying for him. Luke tells us, "He withdrew...

about a stone's throw and prayed, 'Father, if you are willing, take this cup from me; yet not my will, but yours be done'" (Luke 22:41-42). Matthew records Jesus as making his request of the Father twice: "Going a little farther, he fell with his face to the ground and prayed,..

'My Father, if it is possible, may this cup be taken away from me. Yet not as I will, but as you will'" (Matthew 26:39) and "He went away a second time and prayed, 'My Father, if it is not possible for this cup to be taken away unless I drink it, may your will be done'"...

(Matt. 26:42). Mark records his prayer in a positive way, "'Abba, Father,' he said, 'everything is possible for you. Take this cup from me. Yet not what I will, but what you will" (Mark 14:36).

Sometimes this passage is used to illustrate how Christ was tempted in his suffering, as Hebrews 2:18 says, "Because he himself suffered when he was tempted, he is able to help those who are being tempted," and as ...

Hebrews 4:15 says, "For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who has been tempted in every way, just as we are - yet was without sin."

If Christians uphold these passages then how can they claim Christ’s will is the same as the father? The Christians will make an argument regarding these two verses claiming that Christ’s humanity, his ability to feel physical pain, forced him to withdraw from the option

of circumcision despite his father’s will. The problem with that, is that is a human side of Christ, a literal physicality, a creation, overpowering divine essence. If Christ’s will is the same as his fathers, then why have differing wills based on nature.

It is impossible for God’s creation to supersede him. But that is exactly what is happening here. If God and Jesus are co-eternal with each other (disregarding the very issue with that statement alone), then why is it that there are differing wills here.

According to the Christians Christ was a manifestation of God, and thusly he was the same as God, united with his essence and his being and could not be separated from him whatsoever. Therefore they deduce that an entity with a manifestation on a differing plane of existence is..

co-eternal with said entity. Then we ask the simple question to the Christians how is it possible that the entity’s manifestation has a differing will? This is a proof of the non-sense and impossibility of the Trinitarian doctrine.

Their doctrine is so bad that it comes to the point where even THEY admit that the Father and the Son have operated away from each other as opposed to operating as one.

As stated previously,
”My Father, if it is not possible for this cup to be taken away unless I drink it,....

may your will be done'" (Matt. 26:42). Mark records his prayer in a positive way, "'Abba, Father,' he said, 'everything is possible for you. Take this cup from me. Yet not what I will, but what you will" (Mark 14:36).

Christ is literally admitting here that everything is possible for the father, yet he is still limited as the creation. He is a creation of the Father. He is limited. As opposed to the father, who is eternal in every regard and above. 



Yet not what I will, but what you will